Hence the state of the question is easily elicited. (1) It is not asked with respect to the value of the sufficiency of the death of Christ–whether it has in itself sufficient for the salvation of all men. For it is confessed by all that since its value is infinite, it would have been entirely sufficient for the redemption of each and every one, if God had seen fit to extend it to the whole world. And here belongs the distinction used by the fathers and retained by many divines–that Christ “died sufficiently for all, but efficiently for the elect only.” For this being understood of the dignity of Christ’s death is perfectly true (although the phrase would be less accurate if referred to the will and purpose of Christ).

Francis Turretin, Institutes of Elenctic Theology, 14.14.9; 2:458-459.

[Note: the problem is, if Turretin is right, it is not “less accurate,” it is inaccurate. Contrast Paraeus, entries #5 and #6].

This entry was posted on Thursday, March 6th, 2008 at 7:36 am and is filed under Sufficient for All, Efficient for the Elect. You can follow any responses to this entry through the RSS 2.0 feed. Responses are currently closed, but you can trackback from your own site.

Comments are closed at this time.